Section – A Verbal Ability

Section – A

Verbal Ability
Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Given below are some words followed by four options. Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

1.
Illusory

a deceiving b. not happening c. advisory d. concealed

2.
Nebulous

a. Nervous b. powerful c. crystal d. hazy

3.
Kerb

a. a line of soldiers b. a line of ants
c. a line of raised stones d. the level of rising waters

4.
Lax

a. careful b. careless c. pay tax d. ignorant

5.
Janitor

a. jailer b. caretaker c. jail-bird d. porter

Directions for questions 6 to 15: Given below are some words followed by four options. Choose the option which is incongruous to the given word.

6.
Intercede

a. involve b. participate c. seclude d. intermix

7.
Humility

a. conceit b. meekness c. mellowness d. modesty

8.
Culmination

a. pinnacle b. profundity c. height d. inception

9.
Retaliation

a. vindictiveness b. spite c. rancor d. forgiveness

10.
Ludicrous

a. obnoxious b. humorous c. praiseworthy d. impractical

11.
Abridge

a. inflate b. shorten c. amend d. modify

12.
Dreary

a. drab b. dangerous c. beautiful d. dazzling

13.
Mellow

a. excitable b. callous c. irrational d. fickle

14.
Nonplus

a. puzzle b. hinder c. placate d. bewilder

15.
Obtuse

a. brainy b. dim-witted c. stupid d. acute

Directions for questions 16 to 25 : Given below are some word-pairs. Each word-pair bears a certain relationship. Choose the word-pair which has a similar relationship as the one given in capitals.

16.
GLASS : TRANSLUCENCE

a. Cup : Portability b. Mammal : Perfection
c. Light : Opacity d. Metal : Lustre

17.
NEEDLE : PINE

a. Pin : Cloth b. Trunk : Tree
c. Flower : Leaf d. Spine : Cactus

18.
DERIDE : RIDICULE

a. Belittle : Disparage b. Assuage : Increase
c. Efface : Inscribe d. Decrease : Augment

19.
REPREHENSIBLE : PRAISEWORTHY

a. Pretentious : Harmful b. Virulent : Innocuous
c. Epidemic : Widespread d. Antiseptic : Medicinal

20.
ANECDOTE : STORY

a. Elegy : Song b. Novel : Chapter
c. Limerick : Poem d. Prose : Poetry

21.
EXPEDITE : HASTEN

a. Conscript : Write down b. Divert : Make harder
c. Facilitate : Simplify d. Satirize : Praise

22.
DIFFIDENT : CONFIDENCE

a. Obscure : Peculiarity b. Unstable : Balance
c. Submissive : Equanimity d. Fervid : Vigour

23.
ERUDITE : LEARNING

a. Whimsical : Caprice b. Elegant : Diplomacy
c. Generous : Stinginess d. Conscientious : Objection

24.
GRANDILOQUENT : SIMPLE

a. Palatial : Sybaritic b. Salacious : Rumored
c. Soporific : Sporadic d. Circumlocutory : Straightforward

25.
APOCRYPHAL : CERTAINTY

a. Conventional : Orthodoxy b. Religious : Piety
c. Strange : Incongruity d. Chaotic : Order

Directions for questions 26 to 35 : In the following passage some words are underlined. Find the synonyms for the words from among the choices provided and mark the same in your response sheet.

Dr. Tagore is not only a great poetical force but also a moral force. What is more, there is a dualism and something more than dualism in him; he is not only the poet laureate of Asia and a great world personality but also the spokesman of India and the living symbol of our culture. Never was a keener desire manifested than at the present day by the West to understand the hoary East, especially India, with a memorial culture, and never in her secular history was there greater anxiety on the part of the whole of the East and even more so in the case of India, to have her past and her intellectual and moral attainments adequately interpreted to the nation who dwell on the other half of the globe. India and her people, therefore cannot but deem themselves fortunate that, at this juncture, Dr. Tagore imposed upon himself the mission of interpreting the soul of India to the rest of the world, carrying with him the great and magnificent past of her achievement in arts, philosophy and ethics – as his country’s gift to the different parts of the world he has been visiting. In this volume it will not be difficult to detect the utterances in which the poet and seer proclaims aloud and with insistence the aesthetics, philosophical, political and moral standards which India stood for in the past and which he thinks, she ought to stand for even at the present day.

26.
Manifested

a. managed b. manipulated c. demonstrated d. obscured

27.
Hoary

a. ancient b. prevailing c. horrifying d. appalling

28.
Interpreted

a. influenced b. differentiated c. implemented d. deduced

29.
Deem

a. bewilder b. judge c. compose d. consider

30.
Juncture

a. conjunction b. conglomeration c. conjecture d. congestion

31.
Magnificent

a. tame b. wee c. splendid d. luxuriant

32.
Imposed

a. augmented b. intimidated c. inflicted d. demoralized

33.
Ethics

a. evaluations b. standards c. edicts d. decrees

34.
Utterances

a. rumours b. anecdotes c. proclamations d. blabs

35.
Aesthetics

a. sedatives b. principles of appreciation c. analyses d. admirations

Directions for questions 36 to 40 : Sentences given below are divided into four parts which may or may not contain an error. Mark the part which contains the error as answer.

36.
Telco is taking the premium route/to expand their market share/and take competition/in the (A) (B) (C)
utility vehicle segment.
(D)

37.
Prices of government bonds / fell marginally on Thursday / in anticipation / to the (A) (B) (C)
auction announcement.
(D)

38.
Pain with common conditions/such as headaches and backache/costs the US employers (A) (B) (C)
about $80 billion / a year in lost productivity.
(D)

39.
A company spokesman told the newspaper / that the flights targeted/for elimination / (A) (B) (C)
has not yet been determined.
(D)

40.
We are currently facing with / two entirely different problems / both of which are
(A) (B) (C)
deadly, / nuclear attack and terrorism.
(D)

Directions for questions 41 to 45 : Sequence the sentences between S1 and S6 to form a coherent passage. Choose the best option which suggests the correct sequence.

41.
S1. According to the contract signed by sponsors
A. cricketers taking part in the five tournaments
B. during the tour or
C. no competing brands can be endorsed by
D. one month before
S6. the tournament.
a. CABD b. ABCD c. CADB d. ACBD

42.
S1. It is a familiar scenario that
A. in its usual higgledy – piggledy manner
B. traffic is stopped at a traffic signal
C. that seems like forever
D. the light turns green after
S6. A car overtakes another from the wrong side, nearly causing a collision.
a. BADC b. BDCA c. CBAD d. DCBA

43.
S1. Congress has been under great pressure from the elderly and other
consumer groups
A. but price controls would reduce the number of new drugs
B. therefore a much better approach is to eliminate
C. to control drug prices, because expenditure on medicines have risen
sharply during the past two decades
D. but prices are high in the past because research and development is
so expensive
S6. Food and drug administration rules that drive up prices and reduce
medical innovations.
a. CADB b. CDAB c. BCDA d. DABC

44.
S1. Over the past 12 months, America has seen the largest one-year increase
of government spending on national defense as a percentage of GDP since
1982
A. but also the business and the economy there at any time since the late 1970’s
B. it has seen more regulation, more legislative oversight, and more government
intervention
C. remember – in acting to protect the public over the past 12 months
D. Washington not only destroyed a government halfway around the world in
Afghanistan.
S6. It effectively killed a company, Arthur Anderson LLP, for its accounting sins
and reprimanded our entire generation of CEOs for their over-reading
arrogance and greed
a. BCAD b. CDAB c. BACD d. DABC

45.
S1- With much of the corporate frauds being attributed to the absence of
independent directors .
A. to discharge their corporate responsibilities .
B. the absence of a training institute to help train such directors is another major
issue which needs to be addressed.
C. and the fact that most of these directors are not adequately trained.
D. there is now a growing debate about what kind of training should be given to
such persons.
S6. Mr.Morporia, executive director of ICICI Bank said that while there are
training institutes for directors in the UK a similar facility is not available in
India
a. DACB b. CADB c. DABC d. BACD

Directions for questions 46 to 50 : Each of the sentences given below has two blanks. Choose the most appropriate word-pair from the given options to fill in the blanks.

46.
It is time to _______ the old and learn the new, if one must get _______ out of investing in the stock markets

a. unlearn, return
b. realize, profit
c. forget, money
d. adapt, justice

47.
Sitting around the sandwiches, seltzer and scratch pads at meeting’s end the participants seemed most ____ to have been able to _____ their concerts about Basel II.

a. happy, state
b. grateful, reveal
c. gratified, articulate
d. pugnacious, surmise

48.
While arms dealers have been _______ of violating national laws against forgery or domestic export regulations, only one _______ dealer has been brought to court for the crime of violating a UN arms Embargo.

a. prosecuted, alleged
b. acquitted, licensed
c. grilled, acquitted
d. accused, alleged

49.
So whether we look at biology or economics, difference is the _____ of the complex ________ in which we live.

a. understanding, society
b. culmination, ethnology
c. assimilation, theology
d. precondition, ecology

50.
The people in the country think that the politicians _____ the institutions and it is their duty to _____ them.

a. Admonished, save
b. ruined, rescue
c. destroyed, protect
d. annihilated, sustain

Directions for questions 51 to 60 : The passage given below has some blanks. Four options are given for each blank. Choose the most appropriate words that best fit into the blanks.

__51______ has had yet another fallout: there are more job opportunities ____52_____ to people, which means there will be a ___53____ to move towards better paying and more __54____ work environments. Today’s managers are ____55____ by a spirit of ___56____, which __57___ a traditional regard of long years of service at a single workplace. Here it is not the ___58____ of loyalty, or the need to wait for a reward that becomes a __59___. ___60____ fewer people are waiting for the watch to tick their 25th anniversary in the coming decades.

51.
a. Slackening b. Liberalization c. Globalisation d. Disinvestment

52.
a. available b. obtainable c. accessible d. existing

53.
a. predisposition b. bent c. tendency d. leaning

54.
a. friendly b. genial c. amiable d. congenial

55.
a. motivated b. forced c. goaded d. aggravated

56.
a. escapade b. adventure c. quest d. exploration

57.
a. dominates b. prevails c. overrides d. precedes

58.
a. sensation b. impression c. sentiment d. sense

59.
a. consideration b. thought c. point d. apprehension

60.
a. Approximately b. Fittingly c. Suitably d. Consequently

Directions for questions 61 to 80 : Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – I

“INDIAN BANKS are weighed down by enormous amounts of bad loans that threaten the very health of the banking system. Surely, banks in China, which are far more advanced economically and industrially, would be healthier than Indian banks. Among the Indian banks, public sector is the worst affected and among banks in the private sector, the newer tech-savvy and the foreign banks are the least vulnerable to bad loans. If only the hard core bad loans are separated and sold to an outside agency, the problem could be largely resolved”. These and similar opinions are held by knowledgeable persons both in the banking system and outside it. But then, these contain untruths and half-truths, as discussed below.

It is a fact that the problem of bad loans is plaguing the banking system for quite some time. The quantum of bad loans, called inelegantly as non-performing assets (NPAs) is a fairly high proportion of total loans. The percentage of net NPA to advances of scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) in India was 6.2 per cent on March 31, 2001, according to the Reserve Bank of India report on Trends and Progress of Banking in India. The relative level in the U.S. would be less than 2 per cent. Given the fact that the total capital and reserves of SCBs were around 5.23 per cent of total assets, one might jump to the conclusion that NPA was more than the capital and reserves. But, the net NPA amounting to Rs. 32,468 crores represents less than half of capital resources at Rs. 67,741.47 crores. This is because a good chunk of the assets of banks securities, which is fully realizable and risk-free. Further, all NPAs are not irrecoverable and banks do have some securities to back up the NPAs. Therefore, it is clear that the Indian banking system is basically safe; well, some banks are reportedly more adventurous than others, like a South-based private bank that was in the headlines recently.

In any comparison between India and China, except perhaps in the area of democracy, China comes out on tops. Certainly, in industrialization, export performance, in the level of discipline among the populace and adherence to law, China should rank better. Therefore, banks in China would, one might presume, be healthier than Indian banks. Facts portray a contrary picture. As per the Banker magazine (a sister publication of Financial Times of the U.K.), the level of NPA to total assets in the two biggest banks in China, Commercial Bank of China and Bank of China were 25.01 per cent and 28.8 per cent respectively in 2000. As against this, Naps of Indian banks were 2.5 per cent of total assets (not advances) as on March 31, 2001. Banks in India are thus in a much better state of health than their counterparts in China.

In some respects, the problem of NPA of public sector banks is more acute than private banks, but the picture is somewhat blurred. The NPA was 6.7 per cent of advances for public sector banks against 5.4 per cent for private sector banks and 2.2 per cent for foreign banks in 2001. However, for the older private sector banks, that is, other than those that started in the 1990s, the NPA was 7.3 per cent, which is higher than the public sector banks. These are average figures. Looking at figures of individual banks, some of the private and foreign banks reflect a pathetic figure as compared to the public sector. The highest level in public sector bank was in Dena Bank (18.29 per cent) and four others have higher than 10 per cent. The highest figure among all banks was a foreign bank, Bank International, Indonesia at 50.75 per cent and four other foreign banks have more than 20 per cent.

Among them Dresdner Bank, a German bank with 24.05 per cent also figures. Three Indian private sector banks have more than 20 per cent, the highest being 23.70 per cent for Benares State Bank Ltd. Thus, public sector banks have been able to manage their loans better than the private sector, including some of the foreign banks.

The belief that, by separating the hard core NPA and selling them to a recovery agency, the problem of NPA could be resolved has caught the imagination of many seasoned veterans in banking. Many expert committees have recommended the setting up of Asset Reconstruction Company or Fund (ARC or ARF) on the lines of the model tried out in the U.S. and other countries. It is debatable if ARC would be an useful tool under Indian conditions.

The borrowers of the banking system could be broadly classified into business and industrial concerns and households and individuals. Households and individuals, including the agricultural sector, contribute to around 26 per cent of total advances, excluding loans to food procurement agencies (non-food credit).

In these cases, the ARF would not be of any help as banks do succeed in enforcing their rights against recalcitrant borrowers to a considerable extent or recover by reducing the dues by mutual agreement. (Yes, it is an unfortunate fact that banks are able to force recovery from the smaller borrowers but seem utterly helpless against larger borrowers, who are ‘willful defaulters’, due to the slow process of legal remedies and the defaulters taking refuge under the labyrinthine legal process).

The first Narasimham Committee which brought about revolutionary changes in the banking and financial system in 1991 suggested the formation of ARF “to facilitate recovery of dues from clients in respect of whom banks and financial institutions have already taken a decision to recall the loan and proceed with the enforcement of security”.

It was also stressed that the ARF should focus on the larger borrowers. The total number of suit filed against borrowers enjoying advances of Rs. 1 crore and above from the banking system was 5,013 aggregating Rs. 27,988.59 crores as on March 31, 2000, according to the RBI publication. These suits are pending in various courts due to the inadequacy of courts to cope with the enormous number of cases before them; one estimate puts these at a few crore cases. It is extremely doubtful if a separate ARF can expedite matters.

In any case, these would have already been fully written off in the banks’ books and the cases would be handled to the Law departments of various banks. The ARF would only act as the extended legal arm of banks; it would certainly be inappropriate to buy these dues from banks, as the recovery would take years.

ARF or ARC might be helpful in cases of commercial borrowers who default in payment of their dues, where banks have not written them off. In such cases, if the borrowers are industrial companies, the cases would come under a separate agency, Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), whose first objective, as the name implies, is to see if the company can be rehabilitated.

In other words, the presumption is that the borrower should be kept alive with possible fresh infusion of advances.

This, it has become evident over the last few years, has created a problem of ‘moral hazard’; the owners and managers, who were largely responsible for making the company sick, are given fresh funds are required, obviously an ARF, which cannot lend, is not the solution. The Government has declared that BIFR would be closed and a more expeditious legal structure set up. But this could take some time.

The main handicap under which banks suffer in recovering their dues is the legal framework, which some feel, is debtor friendly. Many defaulting borrowers know that banks cannot force them to repay quickly, even if banks have the security, due to the long time taken in courts to enforce the security. To alleviate the problems of banks, Debt Recovery Tribunals were set up for speedy enforcement of law against defaulting borrowers, whose dues exceed Rs. 10 lakhs. There are loans given to State and Central public sector units which has failed to repay. The operations of Debt Recovery Tribunals are such that they have not so far made a dent in the NPA position of banks”.

While on the subject, it is worth recording that even where an advance is guaranteed by Central or State Governments and the primary borrower is unable to repay, the guaranteeing Government rarely, if ever, honours its legal obligation as guarantor, because the bureaucrats want to ensure that the Government does not face a loss or the loss is largely reduced. The fact of Governments failing to honour financial obligations gives rise to a curious phenomenon. A guarantor would fail to pay, if he is either unwilling or unable to pay. The existence of bad loans is due to many causes, such as faulty initial scrutiny by banks, defective follow up of loans, economic slowdown, cheating by borrowers and the like; these causes require a separate study. For the present discussion, the RBI report sums up succinctly “At the policy level, there is need for legislation which will make recovery processes smoother and legal action quicker”.

Creation of ARF or even Debt Recovery Tribunals appears to be mere palliatives for a chronic illness that has so far defied solution. So long as borrowers know that the long arm of law would take years, perhaps decades, to bring them to books, banks would be the sufferers and the uninformed public would tend to blame the banks for problems over which banks have little control.

61.
What according to the author is the possible remedy for the mounting hard-core bad loans in banks?

a. Keep quiet, waive and forget
b. Take vigorous legal steps
c. Sell the bad loans to an outside agency
d. Seek police assistance

62.
The author implies that the Indian banking system is relatively safe because

a. The loan advancing aspect is minimal in the case of Indian Banks
b. Scrutiny by field officers is exemplary
c. Securities are taken care of
d. All the non-performing assets (NPAs) are not irrecoverable

63.
. What is NOT TRUE among the following statements?

a. China and India are democratic nations
b. China ranks better than India with respect to industrialization, export performance,
level of discipline among the populace and adherence to law
c. China has greater population than India
d. Banks in China have better health than those in India

64.
It is easier to recover the loan amounts from

a. Industrialists than from businessmen
b. businessmen than from infrastructure builders
c. individual borrowers than from industrialists
d. House building contractors than from owners of flats

65.
What according to the author is the handicap in recovering the loans?

a. Records and sureties are not genuine
b. Managers and field officers – not all are honest
c. Legal system itself is loanee- friendly
d. General sluggishness from top to bottom

66.
How does the author react towards the efficacy of Debt Recovery Tribunals?

a. Their progress is too slow
b. Less said the better
c. Recoveries are possible through their intervention
d. It is Godsend

67.
Does the author mention the role of Government in ensuring quick recovery of bad loans? How helpful is the government

a. They speak sweet but act harsh
b. They sign as guarantor but later go back at the suggestion of recovery
c. They have a luke-warm attitude
d. Less intervention from them is itself a loan for banking industry

68.
What is RBI’s opinion?

a. It wants banks to be fool proof at the initial stages
b. It suggests no loans should ever be advanced
c. It suggests streamlining the legal procedures to provide quick positive steps of full
recovery
d. It suggests the minimum loan amount to be Rs 50 lakhs per individual

69.
Do banks have control over hard-core defaulters?

a. They are totally helpless
b. Author is silent about this
c. Documents are the only assistance but legal procedures take long time
d. Honesty amongst borrowers is the first casualty

70.
A suitable title for the passage can be

a. Woes of banking system
b. A worrisome project
c. Myth and reality
d. Bank now and repent later

Passage – II

The rich analyses of Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history should synthesize data from social sciences, especially economics, to provide a broader historical view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, originated this approach).

Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the evenementielle, involved short-lived dramatic “events,” such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel’s term for the larger, cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries.

What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel-for Braudel these things create “structures” that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time.

Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political unit-the nation-state, duchy, or whatever-as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous time spans are considered, geographical features may have more significance for human populations than national borders. In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geo- history of the entire region as a “structure” that exerted myriad influences on human life-s ways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.

And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought.

Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena; but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to begin any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions which traditional historians had overlooked.

71.
The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. outline some of Braudel’s influential conceptions and distinguish them from
conventional approaches.
b. evaluate Braudel’s criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography.
c. contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical
figures.
d. illustrate the relevance of Braudel’s concepts to other social sciences.

72.
The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to

a. illustrate the limitations of the Annales tradition of historical investigation.
b. suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation.
c. debate the need for combining various sociological approaches.
d. show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel’s focus on economics.

73.
According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT that he

a. attempted to unify various social sciences.
b. studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries.
c. pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of
nationalism.
d. examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life.

74.
The passage suggests that, compared to traditional historians, Annales historians are

a. more interested in other social sciences than in history.
b. more critical of the achievements of famous historical figures.
c. more skeptical of the validity of most economic research.
d. more interested in the underlying context of human behavior provided by social
structure.

75.
The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the following reasons?

a. It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity.
b. It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists.
c. It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social
activity.
d. It clearly defines boundaries for social analysis.

Passage – III

In the last century Irish painting has changed from a British-influenced lyrical tradition to an art that evokes the ruggedness and roots of an Irish Celtic past. At the turn of the twentieth century Irish painters including notables, Walter Frederick Osborne and Sir William Orpen, looked elsewhere for influence. Osborne’s exposure to “plain air” painting deeply impacted his stylistic development; and Orpen allied himself with a group of English artists, while at the same time participating in the French avant-garde experiment, both as painter and teacher.

However, nationalist energies were beginning to coalesce, reviving interest in Irish culture – including Irish visual arts. Beatrice Elvery’s äir (1907), a landmark achievement, merged the devotional simplicity of fifteenth-century Italian painting with the iconography of Ireland’s Celtic past, linking the history of Irish Catholicism with the still-nascent Irish republic. And although captivated by the French plain air school, Sir John Lavery invoked the mythology of his native land for a 1928 commission to paint the central figure for the bank note of the new Irish Free State. Lavery chose as this figure are
with her arm on a Celtic harp, the national symbol of independent Ireland. In Irish painting from about 1910, memories of Edwardian romanticism coexisted with a new sense of realism, exemplified by the paintings of Paul Henry and Seàn Keating, a student of Orpen’s. Realism also crept into the work of Edwardians Lavery and Orpen, both of whom made paintings depicting World War I, Lavery with a distanced Victorian nobility, Orpen closer to the front, revealing a more sinister and realistic vision. Meanwhile, counterpoint to the Edwardians and realists came Jack. B Yeats, whose travels throughout the rugged and more authentically Irish West led him to depict subjects ranging from street scenes in Dublin to boxing matches and funerals. Fusing close observations of Irish life and icons with an Irish identity in a new way, Yeats changed the face of Irish painting and became the most important Irish artist of his century.

76.
With respect to which of the following painters does the passage provide LEAST support for the assertion that the painter was influenced by the contemporary art of France?

a. Walter Frederick Osborne
b. Sir William Orpen
c. Beatrice Elvery
d. Seàn Keating

77.
Which of the following best explains the author’s use of the word “counterpoint” in referring to Yeats?

a. Yeats’ paintings differed significantly in subject matter from those of his
contemporaries in Ireland.
b. Yeats reacted to the realism of his contemporary artists by invoking nineteenth-
century naturalism in his own painting style.
c. Yeats avoided religious and mythological themes in favor of mundane portrayals of
Irish life.
d. Yeats’ paintings suggested that his political views departed radically from those of
the Edwardians and the realists.

78.
The author points out the coexistence of romanticism and realism most probably in order to show that :

a. Irish painters of the early twentieth century often combined elements of realism with
those of romanticism into a single painting
b. Irish painters of the early twentieth century tended to romanticize the harsh reality
of war
c. for a time painters from each school influenced painters from the other school
d. the transition in Irish painting from one predominant style to the other was not an
abrupt one

79.
Which of the following is the most likely title of a longer article in which the passage might have appeared?

a. “20th Century Irish Masterpieces: A Coalescence of Painting Styles”
b. “Who Deserves Credit for the Preeminence of Yeats among Irish Painters?”
c. “Realism vs. Romanticism: Ireland’s Struggle for National Identity”
d. “Irish Paintings: Reflections of an Emerging Independent State”

80.
The word “rugged” in the passage can be replaced by :

a. gruff
b. shaggy
c. craggy
d. sleek

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Section – B Quantitative Ability
Directions for questions 81 to 87

The following questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Four holes numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4 are filled by coloured pegs. The pegs may be of colours white (W). violet (V). pink (P) and orange (O). Thus WWOV means holes 1 and 2 are filled by white pegs, hole 3 by orange and hole 4 by violet peg. You will be making guesses in sequence and will be given a score as feedback for your guess in the following manner.

Each time you guess a colour that is there in the configuration but position it wrongly, you will be given a black peg as a score. If along with the colour, the correct position is also guessed, then you will get a golden peg as score. Thus. for the colouring WWOV, if your guess is WOPW, then you will get one golden and two black pegs for your score. If, however your guess was PWOO you will get two golden pegs only.

81.
Find the number of distinct scores that can be given for a guess.

a. 15 b. 16 c. 14 d. Cannot say

82.
Suppose a golden peg scores 10 points for you while a black peg scores 5 points, how many distinct numerical scores are possible for a guess?

a. 9 b. 14 c. 7 d. None of these

83.
Suppose a golden peg scores 10 points for you while a black peg scores only 4 points, how many distinct numerical scores are possible for a guess?

a. 14 b. 16 c. 15 d. None of these

84.
Suppose we have the following guesses and scores

Guess
V
V
P
P
P
O
O
P
W
W
O
O
W
V
V
O

Score
Golden, Black
Black
Golden, Golden
Golden, Black

Which one of the following can be the actual configuration?

a. W W P V b. W W V P c. W P V P d. None of these

85.
Suppose we have the following guesses and scores:

Guess
W
W
P
O
P
P
W
W
W
P
V
O

Score
Black
Golden
Golden

Which of the following coloured pegs would there be in hole number 2?

a. violet b. pink c. orange d. None of these

86.
In the previous question which of the following coloured pegs would be there in hole number 3?

a. white b. orange c. pink d. None of these

87.
Suppose we have the following guesses and scores:

Guess
O
O
P
V
O
W
O
V
P
P
O
W

Score
Golden, Golden, Black
Golden, Black
Golden, Black

Find the actual configuration.

a. V O V V b. either P O V V or V O V V c. either P O V V or V P O O d. None of these
Directions for questions 88 to 92

The following questions relate to the construction of words from an alphabet set comprising of the three letters; P, Q and R the words sequences of letters are constructed by the application of one or more of the following syntactic rules

Ride 1: If a word ends with the letter P, then a new word can be made by adding a Q at
the end.
Rule 2: If y is any sequence of letters and Ry is a word, then so is Ryy.
Rule 3 : If PPP occurs in any word, then it can be replaced by Q.
Rule 4 : If QQ occurs in any word, we may drop it.

It is also given that RP is a word.

Given below is an illustration of one way of constructing the word RQPPQ from RP in seven steps.

Step 1: RP (Given)
Step 2: RPP (Rule 2)
Step 3: RPPPP (Rule 2)
Step 4: RQP (Rule 3)
Step 5: RQPQ (Rule 1)
Step 6: RQPQQPQ (Rule 2)
Step 7: RQPPQ (Rule 4}

88. Find the minimum number of steps required to construct the word RQQPP.

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. None of these

89. Find the minimum number of steps required to construct QQ from RP.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 8 d. Not possible

90. Find the minimum number of steps required to construct RQQQP.

a. 11 b.9 c. 10 d. None of these

91. Find the number of words in the collection {RQ, RPQ, RQP, RPP, PQ} that can be
constructed from RP.

a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these

92. If RQQ is also a valid word then find the number of constructible words in the collection in
question above.

a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these

Directions for questions 93 to 97

In the following set of questions, a given sequence of natural numbers has to be rearranged into a new sequence where the same numbers appear in an increasing order of magnitude. Thus, there is a number sequence 2314, it has to be converted to 1234. Three different conversion procedures are permitted – one step switching, two step switching and random switching. These processes are defined below.

One-step switching: In this procedure at a time only two adjacent numbers in the given
sequence may be interchanged.

Two-step switching: In this procedure at a time two numbers in the given sequence may
be interchanged only if there is at most one number between them.

Random switching: In this procedure any two numbers in the given sequence may be
interchanged.

93. If only one step switching is used then find the minimum number of switchings required
to convert 53142 to 12345.

a. 7 b. 6 c. 6 d. None of these

94. If only two-step switching is used, then find the minimum number of switchings required to
convert 53142 to 12345.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these

95. If random switching is used, then find the minimum number of switchings required to
convert 625134 to 123456.

a. 2 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these

96. If random switching is used, then find the minimum number of switchings required to
convert 526143 to 123456.

a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these

97. If one-step switching is used to convert 561243 to 612435 and then random switching is
used to convert it back to 123456, then find the minimum number of switchings required
for the entire conversion.

a. 6 b. 9 c. 10 d. None of these

Directions for questions 98 to 101

There are three books to be selected from the book shelf, based on the following conditions.

Condition 1: Books 1 and 2 must be selected.
Condition 2: Book 1 or Book 3 must be selected, but not both.
Condition 3: Book 2 can be selected only if Book 3 is selected.

98. Ignoring the conditions given above, in how many ways can one are more books be
selected?

a. 6 b. 7 c. 4 d. None of these

99. What is the number of selection combinations which satisfy at most one of the three
conditions?

a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. None of these

100. What is the number of selection combinations satisfying at least two conditions?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these

101. What is the number of selection combinations satisfying condition 3?

a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these
Directions for questions 102 to 111

The following questions are based on an experiment. In this experiment, five distinct marbles are distributed into four distinct packets. Each packet may receive no marble, exactly one marble or more than one marble or more than one marble.

102.
Find the number of ways in which the second packet receives exactly two marbles.

a. 135 b. 27 c. 270 d. None of these

103.
Find the number of ways in which marble 1 goes into the first packet

a. 256 b. 64 c. 120 d. None of these

104.
What is the total number of ways in which the marbles can be distributed into the packets?

a. 625 b. 1024 c. 320 d. None of these

105.
Find the total number of ways in which the marbles can be distributed into the packets such that no packet is empty.

a. 120 b. 240 c. 119 d. None of these

106.
What is the number of ways in which the marbles can be distributed such that all the marbles go into one packet?

a. 4 b. 24 c. 120 d. None of these

107.
In questions 102 to 111, if the number of marbles is changed from five to three and the number of packets is changed from four to three, then in how many ways can the marbles be distributed such that only one packet remains empty?

a. 18 b. 9 c. 24 d. None of these

108.
In the previous question, in how many ways can the marbles be distributed such that the third packet is not empty?

a. 19 b. 18 c. 18 d. None of these

109.
In question 107, in how many ways can the marbles be distributed such that exactly two packets are empty?

a. 9 b. 6 c. 8 d. None of these

110.
In question 107, in how many ways can the marbles be distributed such that the third packet is empty?

a. 9 b. 3 c. 8 d. None of these

111.
In question 107, in how many ways can the marbles be distributed such that marble 1 does not go into the first packet?

a. 24 b. 15 c. 18 d. None of these

Directions for questions 112 to 116 :

The following questions relate to the construction of words from the symbol set (p,q,r). It is also given that

I. urprqu is a valid word whenever u is a sequence of r’s (i.e. u = rr or rrr etc.)
II. Suppose u,v,w are all sequences of r’s; it can then be inferred that if upvqw is a
valid word, so is urpvrqw or upvqwr or urprvqw etc.

112.
The number of valid words in the collection rrprqrr, rrrrprrqrr, rrrprrqr, rrrrqrprrr is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None of these

113.
Which of the following is a valid word?

a. rrqrpr b. rprrqr c. pqrpr d. None of these

114.
Which of the words in the collection (i) rrrprqrr, (ii) rrpqr, (iii) prrqr and (iv) rrprqrr are valid?

a. i and ii b. i and iii c. ii and iii d. None of these

115.
Which of the following are invalid words?

a. rrrrrprrrqrr b. rrrrprrqrr c. rrprrq d. All are valid

116.
Consider the collection (i) rrrrrrprrrqrrr, (ii) rrrrqrprrr and (iii) rrrrrprrrrqr. Which of the following is true?

a. (i) and (ii) are valid words
b. (i) and (iii) are valid words
c. (ii) and (iii) are valid words
d. None of these is true

Directions for questions 117 to 121

The following questions are based on a function f (p, q) which is defined for all integers p and q with p > q and both p, q 0.

f(p, q) = p, if q = 0
f(p, q) = f(q, x) if q > x, here x is the remainder when p is divided by q.

117.
Find the value of f(27,18).

a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. None of these

118.
Which of the following is equivalent to f(6,4)?

a. f(54, 52) b. f(56, 52) c. f(52, 48) d. None of these

119.
Find the value of f (15, 9).

a. 5 b. 9 c. 1 d. None of these

120.
What is the value of f (44, 15)?

a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these

121.
Which of the following is equivalent to f (9, 3)?

a. f(54, 50) b. f(54,51) c. f(54,48) d. None of these

Directions for questions 122 to 130

These questions are based on the given data.

Function f(m,n) is defined only for non negative integers.

f( m,n) = n + 1 if m = 0
= f (m-1, 1) if m !=0 but n = 0
= f (m-1, f((m,n-1)) if m =!0 and n =! 0

122.
Find the value of f(1,3).

a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these

123.
Find the value of f (2, 0).

a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. None of these

124.
Find the value of f (3, 0).

a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. None of these

125.
Find the value of f (1, 2).

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these

126.
Which of the following is equivalent to f(1, 2)?

a. f (2, 0) b. f (1, 3) c. f (5, 0) d. None of these

127.
Which of the following is equivalent to f (0, f (1, 1))?

a. f (1,1) b. f (0, f (1,0)) c. f (1,2) d. None of these

128.
Find the value of f (3, 0).

a. f (2, 0) b. f (1, 2) c. f (1, 3) d. None of these

129.
Which of the following is the same as f (0, f (1,0))?

a. f (1,1) b. f (0, f (1,1)) c. f (1,2) d. None of these

130.
If f (1,n) = 5, what is the value of n ?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 0 d. None of these

Directions for questions 131 to 140 :

Each question is followed by two statements You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements insufficient for answering the question.

Mark a If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but
cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark b If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark c If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot
be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark d If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together

131.
What is Jagan’s date of birth?

i. Sridhar remembers that Jagan’s date of birth is somewhere between 15th April and
19th April.
ii. Srinivas remembers that Jagan’s date of birth is after 17th April but before 21st April
132.
What could be the possible bandwidth in kbps (kilo bits per second) of the cable laid by Reliance for the mobile services?

i. The diameter of the cable laid is 1.5mm
ii. The cable can transmit 8192 bits per second.

133.
A student at The Magnus Institute can enroll for two batches Mag1 and Mag2. Krishna enrolls for the above mentioned batches. What could be the number of classes that she can attend in a particular month, if there is a condition that if she attends the Mag2 batch first, then she cannot attend the Mag1 batch but if she attends the Mag1 batch first then she can also attend the Mag2 batch. It is required that Krishna has to attend the first batch

i. The batch Mag1 is conducted daily and Mag2 batch is conducted on alternate days.
ii. The batch Mag1 was the first batch to be started.

134.
What would be the height of the tree after three years?

i. The present height of the tree is 10 m.
ii. The annual rate of increase in the height is 2.5%

135.
Mr. Xavier celebrates his birthday on the 5th of June every year. Find the number of people who are expected to attend the birthday party this year.

i. On his last year’s birthday party, the total number of guests was 500.
ii. On this year’s birthday party Mr. Xavier is expecting at least 20 more guests.

136.
Two friends Sita and Gita are standing exactly midway on either side of a uniform lake whose length is 4km. Find the width of the lake.

i. The total area covered by the lake is 40 sq. km
ii. Sita moves along the side of the lake at a speed of 1.5 kmph for 1hour, as a result
the distance between Sita and Gita becomes 1.5 km.

137.
What is the speed of Suresh in kmph?

i. Suresh can read the word MAGNUS in 0.4sec.
ii. Suresh’s speed of walking is the same as his speed of reading.

138.
Find the total number of matches played in the triangular series.

i. Three teams participated in the series.
ii. Each team has to play the other teams twice.

139.
In how many ways can a student select 8 questions?

i. There are 12 questions in the paper.
ii. The paper is divided into two sections consisting of 5 and 7 questions respectively
and the student has to select at least 3 questions from each section.

140.
Who is the heaviest among the four friends Mahesh, Paresh, Amit and Krishna?

i. Amit is lighter than Paresh.
ii. Paresh is heavier than Mahesh, but lighter than Krishna.
Section – C General Knowledge
Directions for questions 141 to 200: Choose the correct answer.

141.
The national income is identically equal to

a. Gross National product at indexed prices
b. Net Domestic savings at lowest interest rates
c. Gross National capital formation without depreciation.
d. Net National product at Factors’ cost.

142.
“Desikottama” is an award instituted by

a. Jawaharlal Nehru university
b. Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh
c. Shantiniketan
d. Sahitya Academy

143.
The major naval air bases in India are located at

a. Visakapatnam and Cochin
b. Goa and Arakonnam
c. Port Blair and Kavaretti
d. Chennai and Mumbai

144.
The Vice-President of India is elected by

a. both houses of parliament
b. the members of Lok Sabha only
c. the member of Parliament and state legislature assemblies
d. the members of Rajya Sabha only.

145.
The diabetic drug that raised an alarm in the pharmaceutical world is

a. Dianil
b. Loratidine
c. Ragaglitazar
d. Cyploflaxacin

146.
A recent discovery by an Australian scientist says that Light is ________

a. gaining speed
b. slowing down
c. always constant
d. immeasurable

147.
The Appalachean mountains are located in :

a. South America
b. Africa
c. Russia
d. North America

148.
The term “Ambush Marketing” is coined by

a. Amarthya Sen
b. Dhirubai Ambani
c. Jerry Welsh
d. WTO

149.
The chain of restaurants started by Sachin Tendulkar is named as

a. Sixer and Boundary
b. Sachin’s
c. Century
d. Tendulkar’s

150.
The Pearl mosque was constructed by

a. Shajahan
b. Jahangeer
c. Akbar
d. The Taliban

151.
“Agnivarsha” is authored by which one of these writers?

a. Nasiruddin Shah
b. Javed Akthar
c. Girish Karnad
d. Subrahmanya Bharathi

152.
For which of these discoveries did Albert Einstein win the Nobel Prize?

a. Discovering photo electric effect
b. Quantum Theory
c. Unified field Theory
d. Theories on Electro Magnetism.

153.
The present chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission is

a. R. Chidambaram
b. Anil Kakkad
c. Kasturi Rangan
d. Dr. Raja Ramanna

154.
Which one of these is the world’s largest company?

a. General Electric
b. General Motors
c. NASA
d. Indian Railways

155.
NSS is the acronym for

a. National stock survey
b. National statistical sample
c. National sample survey
d. National scrip schedule

156.
Which one of the following statements regarding Ashokan stone pillars is incorrect ?

a. These are highly polished
b. These are monolithic
c. The shaft of the pillars is tapering in shape
d. These are parts of architectural structures

157.
Which of the following dances involves solo performance ?

a. Bharatanatyam
b. Mohini Attam
c. Kuchipudi
d. Odissi

158.
One will not have to pass through the Suez canal while traveling from Mumbai to –

a. Alexandria
b. Suez
c. Port Said
d. Benghazi

159.
Which one of these diseases is not caused by a micro organism?

a. Malaria
b. Encephalitis
c. Aids
d. Leukemia

160.
Which of these is the richest PSU in India.

a. Indian Oil Corporation
b. ONGC
c. SAIL
d. OIL

161.
Who among the following Indians was honoured with an Oscar Award ?

a. Meera Nayar
b. Satyajitray
c. Sehkar Kappor
d. Aamir Khan

162.
The name “Red Sea” is derived from the reddish coloration caused by the presence of

a. Red algae
b. Fungus
c. Red minards
d. Red coloured shrimp

163.
Who has written the book “The Presidential Marathon”?

a. Bill Clinton
b. Boris Yeltsin
c. Fidel Castro
d, Al gore

164.
NASCOM is associated with

a. garment exports
b. space
c. software
d. internet

165.
Convergence Bill is related to

a. Information and Technology
b. Information and Broadcasting
c. Telecommunication
d. All the above

166.
“Whenever I think of my invention it makes me feel sad” .These lines are said by

a. Alfred Nobel
b. Open Heimmer
c. Anton Kalashnikov
d. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

167.
The union planning commission is headed by the

a. Deputy Chairman
b. Vice- President
c. Finance Minister
d. Prime Minister

168.
The percentage of Ethanol to be mixed with petrol in India is

a. 5%
b. 2%
c. 15%
d. 25%

169.
“Big Blue” project is a ____

a. Deep sea oil exploration by Shell Oil Company
b. Joint offshore Oil exploration by Reliance Petroleum and ONGC
c. The project by NASA to find the origins of the universe
d. A Genome project undertaken by IBM.

170.
The National currency of South Korea is

a. Korean dollar
b. Won
c. Kwang
d. Yuan

171.
The Escorts group is headed by which one of the following families ?

a. Nandas
b. Firodias
c. Singhanias
d. Mittals

172.
The largest producer of electricity in India is

a. The National Hydro power corporation.
b. The National Atomic power corporation.
c. The National Thermal Power Corporation.
d. The Tata Power Undertaking.

173.
The term MSUV means

a. Motor spirit utilizing vehicle
b. Multi sports utility vehicle
c. Maharashtra state university
d. None of the above.

174.
Which one of these have signed a four year deal with Sachin Tendulkar for brand Marketing ?

a. Mark Mascarhenas
b. MRF
c. Pepsi
d. BCCI

175.
Which country uses the largest number of robots ?

a. Japan
b. USA
c. Germany
d. France

176.
Who among these is the CEO of Intel ?

a. Patrisia Russo
b. Steve Balmer
c. Samuel.J Palmmisono
d. Creig Barett

177.
The word “call money” refers to

a. money in buying shares
b. money withdrawn from an ATM counter
c. money earned by a call girl
d. money that’s to be returned on demand

178.
The “Bombay Triumvirate” was applied for

a. B.G. Tilak, G.G. Agarkar and G.H. Deshmukh
b. B.G. Tilak, G.K. Gokhale and M.B. Namjoshi
c. Firojshah Mehta, K.T. Telang and Badruddin Tyabji
d. K.T.Telang, R.G. Bhadarkar and Dadabai Naoroji.

179.
The sex of a child is determined :

a. at the time of the sperms’ entry
b. at the time of fertilization of the ovum.
c. 6 – 7 weeks after conception
d. In the third month of pregnancy.

180.
The increase in population all over the world is due to

a. tremendous increase in birth rate
b. significant decrease in birth rate
c. gradual decrease in mortality rate
d. failure to adopt family planning contraceptive devices

181.
The following are the commissioned ranks in the defence services. Identify the three that are equivalent

a. General, Commodore, Air Marshal
b. Major, Lieutenant Commander, Squadron Leader
c. Major General, Admiral, Air Chief Marshal
d. Captain, Lieutenant, Flying Officer

182.
In addition to the speaker, the Lok Sabha has a deputy speaker who is

a. appointed by the speaker
b. appointed by the President
c. appointed by the Prime Minister
d. elected by the Members of Lok Sabha

183.
Tea will cool most easily in a

a. metal cup
b. porcelain cup
c. glass cup
d. clay cup

184.
The Hydraulic brakes in automobiles is a direct application of

a. Benouli’s Theorem
b. Toricellin Law
c. Pascal’s law
d. Archemedis principle.

185.
Which one of these sporting events is held in a velodrome?

a. Archery
b. Cycling
c. Gymnastics
d. Karate – Judo
Match the inventions in column A with the inventors in column B.

Column A
Column B

186.
Submarine
a. Michael Faraday

187.
Motorcycle
b. Stephen Hawking

188.
Black hole
c. David Bushnell

189.
Electron
d. J J Thomson

190.
Electric Motor
e. Daimler

191.
The companies involved in the logo dispute between the ICC and the Cricket players are

a. Samsung and Coca-cola
b. Ford and General Motors
c. South Africa Gold co. and Sony
d. South African Airways, L..G. Electronics and Pepsi

192.
“TIDE” is a brand launched by

a. Hindustan Lever
b. Procter & Gamble
c. Spic Henko
d. Coca-Cola

193.
The Grand Trunk Express is operated by the

a. South Central Railway
b. Northern Railway
c. Southern Railway
d. South Eastern Railway

194.
Find the odd one out

a. Rajiv Gandhi
b. Rajesh Pilot
c. Biju Patnayak
d. V.P. Singh

195.
“Ushuai” is a popular programme on which of these following T.V channels ?

a. Star Plus
b. Discovery
c. Zee TV
d. E TV Urdu

196.
Which is the latest entrant into the list of the IITs

a. IIT Roorkee
b. IIT Guwahati
c. IIT Ghaziabad
d. IIT Kanpur

197.
The Mourya Sheraton belongs to which one of these Hotel groups ?

a. WELCOME ITC
b. TAJ Group
c. EAST INDIA Hotels Ltd.
d. ITDC

198.
Who among these regulate the global oil prices?

a. The USA
b. The London Oil Market
c. The Gulf Oil producers association
d. OPEC

199.
A hospital in Kabul run by Indian aid is named after –

a. Indira Gandhi
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Jayaprakash Narayan
d. Mother Theresa

200.
The subsidiary of Singapore Air lines is

a. Malaysian Air Lines
b. Silk Airlines
c. Cathay Pacific
d. Santosa Air Lines